[Nov 11, 2022] Uplift Your NCLEX-RN Exam Marks With The Help of NCLEX-RN Dumps
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Discuss the key features of the exam.
There are several key features of the exam:
Written test: The written test is two hours long. This means that you will have four-and-a-half hours to complete the exam.
You are tested on how you would use critical thinking skills.
It tests if you understand the basics of the nursing process.
It also tests your ability to make nursing judgments.
The test includes a clinical scenario.
It tests your ability to apply the knowledge you learned in nursing school to the nursing process.
Get to know about the salary of NCLEX-RN certified professional
The Average salary of different countries of NCLEX-RN Certified professional
- India - 4461870 INR
- UK - 44352.90 Pounds
- United States - 60,000 USD
NEW QUESTION 37
When caring for a postoperative cholecystectomy client, the nurse assesses patency and documents drainage of the T-tube. The nurse recognizes that the expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours postoperatively is:
- A. 300-500 mL
- B. 200-300 mL
- C. 50-100 mL
- D. 1000-1200 mL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) During the first 24 hours after surgery, the drainage is normally 300-500 mL and then decreases to about 200 mL in 24 hours during the next 3-4 days. (B) This range is the amount of drainage after the first
24 hours postoperatively. During the first 24 hours, it is 300-500 mL. (C) During the first 24 hours after surgery, this range is the expected amount of drainage. (D) The expected amount of drainage during the first 24 hours is 300-500 mL. An output of >500 mLshould be reported to the physician, because an occlusion of some type, caused by a retained gallstone or an inflammatory process within the biliary drainage system, is evident.
NEW QUESTION 38
A 33-year-old client was brought into the emergency room unconscious, and it is determined that surgery is needed. Informed consent must be obtained from his next of kin. The sequence in which the next of kin would be asked for the consent would be:
- A. Spouse, parent, sibling, adult child
- B. Parent, spouse, adult child, sibling
- C. Parent, spouse, sibling, adult child
- D. Spouse, adult child, parent, sibling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Spouse and adult child would be asked before a parent. (B) The order of kin relationship for an adult, as determined from legal intestate succession, is usually spouse, adult child, parent, sibling. (C) Parent and sibling would be asked after adult child. (D) Spouse and adult child would be asked before parent. Sibling would be asked last.
NEW QUESTION 39
When teaching a mother of a 4-month-old with diarrhea about the importance of preventing dehydration, the nurse would inform the mother about the importance of feeding her child:
- A. Regular formulas mixed with electrolyte solutions
- B. Soy-based, lactose-free formula
- C. Diluted carbonated drinks
- D. Fruit juices
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Diluted fruit juices are not recommended for rehydration because they tend to aggravate the diarrhea. (B) Diluted soft drinks have a high-carbohydrate content, which aggravates the diarrhea. (C) Soy-based, lactose-free formula reduces stool output and duration of diarrhea in most infants. (D) Regular formulas contain lactose, which can increase diarrhea.
NEW QUESTION 40
A client has consented to have a central venous catheter placed. The best position in which to place the client is the Trendelenburg position. The reason is that the Trendelenburg position:
- A. Reduces the possibility of hematoma formation
- B. Allows the physician to visualize the subclavian vein
- C. Reduces the possibility of air embolism
- D. Makes the procedure more comfortable for the client
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) The subclavian vein is not visible during central line insertion regardless of the client's position. (B) The Trendelenburg position reduces the possibility of air embolism because it places slight positive pressure on the central veins. It also distends the veins, and distention facilitates insertion. (C) This response is untrue; it has no effect on hematoma formation. (D) This position is not necessarily more comfortable for the client, and many clients, especially those who may be short of breath, may find the position uncomfortable and difficult to maintain.
NEW QUESTION 41
A client is diagnosed with organic brain disorder. The nursing care should include:
- A. Challenging educational programs
- B. Long, extended family visits
- C. Organized, safe environment
- D. Detailed explanations of procedures
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A priority nursing goal is attending to the client's safety and well-being. Reorient frequently, remove dangerous objects, and maintain consistent environment. (B) Short, frequent visits are recommended to avoid overstimulation and fatigue. (C) Short, concise, simple explanations are easier to understand. (D) Mental capability and attention span deficits make learning difficult and frustrating.
NEW QUESTION 42
A 14-year-old teenager is demonstrating behavior indicative of an obsessive-compulsive disorder. She is obsessed with her appearance. She will not leave her room until her hair, clothes, and makeup are perfect. She always dresses immaculately. Recently, she expressed disgust over her appearance after she gained 5 lb. After observing a marked weight loss over a 2-week period, her mother suspects that she is experiencing bulimia.
She eats everything on her plate, then runs to the bathroom. In interviewing the teenager, she discusses in great detail all of the events leading to her bulimia, but not her feelings. What defense mechanism is she using?
- A. Displacement
- B. Dissociation
- C. Intellectualization
- D. Rationalization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Dissociation is separating a group of mental processes from consciousness or identity, such as multiple personalities. That is not evident in this situation. (B) Intellectualization is excessive use of reasoning, logic, or words usually without experiencing associated feelings. This is the defense mechanism that this client is using.
(C) Rationalization is giving a socially acceptable reason for behavior rather than the actual reason. She is discussing events, not reasons. (D) Displacement is a shift of emotion associated with an anxiety-producing person, object, or situation to a less threatening object.
NEW QUESTION 43
A female client has a chest tube placed. It is accidentally pulled out of the intrapleural space when she is ambulating. The first action the nurse should take is to:
- A. Instruct the client to cough deeply to re-expand her lung
- B. Apply a petrolatum dressing over the site
- C. Put on sterile gloves and replace the tube
- D. Auscultate the lung to determine if she needs the tube replaced
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set E
Explanation:
(A) This action is inappropriate. Coughing will not re-expand the lung and could result in further harm. (B) This action is a medical procedure, not a nursing procedure. (C) An occlusive dressing will prevent further air leak until the physician institutes further treatment. (D) The decision to reinsert the tube is a medical decision, not a nursing one.
NEW QUESTION 44
The nurse practitioner determines that a client is approximately 9 weeks' gestation. During the visit, the practitioner informs the client about symptoms of physical changes that she will experience during her first trimester, such as:
- A. Quickening
- B. A 6-8 lb weight gain
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Abdominal enlargement
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Nausea and vomiting are experienced by almost half of all pregnant women during the first 3 months of pregnancy as a result of elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels and changed carbohydrate metabolism. (B) Quickening is the mother's perception of fetal movement and generally does not occur until 18-20 weeks after the last menstrual period in primigravidas, but it may occur as early as 16 weeks in multigravidas. (C) During the first trimester there should be only a modest weight gain of 2-4 lb. It is not uncommon for women to lose weight during the first trimester owing to nausea and/or vomiting. (D) Physical changes are not apparent until the second trimester, when the uterus rises out of the pelvis.
NEW QUESTION 45
A female client is anticipating a visit with her parents over the Thanksgiving holidays. She has recently begun experiencing periods of extreme shortness of breath, which her physician has labeled as panic attacks. Which of the following statements by the nurse would enhance therapeutic communication?
- A. "Perhaps you and I can discover what produces your anxiety."
- B. "Why do you feel this way?"
- C. "Tell me about your dislike for your parents."
- D. "Don't worry, everything will be all right on your visit with your parents."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Asking the client to provide an explanation for her feelings is often intimidating. (B) This response is probing and may make the client feel used and valued only for the information she can provide. (C) This underrates the client's feelings and belittles her concerns. It may cause the client to stop sharing feelings for fear that they will be ridiculed. (D) The emphasis is on working with the client. It shows that there is hope for change through collaboration.
NEW QUESTION 46
A 2-year-old child with a scalp laceration and subdural hematoma of the temporal area as a result of falling out of bed should be prevented from:
- A. Crying
- B. Rolling from his back to his tummy
- C. Falling asleep
- D. Sucking his thumb
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) A child with a subdural hematoma has increased ICP. Crying may significantly increase this pressure.
(B) Adequate sleep is essential, but it is important that the child can be aroused from sleep after head injury. (C) This child is free to roll from his back to his abdomen. (D) Thumb-sucking serves to reduce anxiety and should not be prevented at this time.
NEW QUESTION 47
A 32-year-old mother of two was brought to the hospital by her husband. He reported that his wife could no longer manage the house and children. She does not sleep and talks day and night. She has purchased some very expensive clothes. The nurse noted that the client speaks rapidly and changes the subject irrationally. This is an example of:
- A. Delusions
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Flight of ideas
- D. Echolalia
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Rapidly moving from one topic to another without following any logical sequence is called flight of ideas. (B) False beliefs are delusions. (C) False sensory perceptions are hallucinations ("hearing voices").
(D) Repeating words is called echolalia.
NEW QUESTION 48
Discharge teaching for the client who has a total gastrectomy should include which of the following?
- A. Follow-up visits every 3 weeks for the first 6 months
- B. B12 injections needed for the rest of the client's life
- C. Need for the client to increase fluid intake to 3000 mL/day
- D. Need to eat three full meals with plenty of fiber per day
Answer: B
Explanation:
(A) There will be no need to increase fluid intake excessively, because dumping syndrome could present a problem. (B) Followup visits every 3 weeks are not a standard recommendation. Follow-up visits will be highly individualized. (C) With removal of the stomach, intrinsic factor will no longer be produced. Intrinsic factor is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption. Parenteral injections of B12 will be needed on a monthly basis for the rest of the person's life. (D) Smaller, more frequent meals, rather than large, bulky meals, are recommended to prevent problems with dumping syndrome.
NEW QUESTION 49
A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). She is started on an aminophylline infusion. Three days later she is breathing easier. A serum theophylline level is drawn. Which of the following values represents a therapeutic level?
- A. 25 u g/mL
- B. 4 u g/mL
- C. 30 u g/mL
- D. 14 u g/mL
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The therapeutic blood level range of theophylline is 10-20 mg/mL. Therapeutic drug monitoring determines effective drug dosages and prevents toxicity. (B, D) This value is a toxic level of the drug. (C) This value is a nontherapeutic level of the drug.
NEW QUESTION 50
Prior to administering digoxin to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse needs to assess:
- A. Apical pulse for 1 minute
- B. Respiratory rate for 1 minute
- C. Radial pulse for 1 minute
- D. Radial pulse for 2 minutes
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Respiratory rate is not directly affected by digoxin therapy. (B) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse. Dysrhythmias may not be detected. (C) A radial pulse is not as accurate as an apical pulse, regardless of assessment time. (D) Apical pulse should be measured for 1-minute prior to digoxin administration. Digoxin decreases the heart rate. Digoxin should be withheld if apical rates are <60 bpm or >120 bpm.
NEW QUESTION 51
The nurse who is caring for a client with pneumonia assesses that the client has become increasingly irritable and restless. The nurse realizes that this is a result of:
- A. IV fluids of 2.5-3 liters in 24 hours
- B. Cerebral hypoxia
- C. The client's maintaining a semi-Fowler position
- D. Prolonged bed rest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Maintaining bed rest helps to decrease the O2 needs of the tissues, which decreases dyspnea and workload on the respiratory system. (B) The semi-Fowler or high-Fowler position is necessary to aid in lessening pressure on the diaphragm from the abdominal organs, which facilitates comfort and easier breathing patterns. (C) Cerebral hypoxia causes the client with pneumonia to be increasingly irritable and restless and results from the client not obtaining enough O2 to meet metabolic needs. (D) Proper hydration facilitates liquefaction of mucus trapped in the bronchioles and alveoli and enhances expectoration. Unless contraindicated, a reasonable amount of IV fluids to be administered is at least 2.5-3 liters in a 24-hour period.
NEW QUESTION 52
The nurse is notified that a 27-year-old primigravida diagnosed with complete placenta previa is to be admitted to the hospital for a cesarean section. The client is now at 36 weeks' gestation and is presently having bright red bleeding of moderate amount. On admission, the nursing intervention that the nurse should give the highest priority to is:
- A. Start an IV infusion in the client's arm
- B. Insert an indwelling catheter into her bladder
- C. Determine the status of the fetus by fetal heart tones
- D. Shave the client's abdomen and arrange her lab work
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) These nursing actions are necessary prior to the cesarean section, but not immediately necessary to maintain physiological equilibrium. (B) Determining the physiological status of the fetus would constitute the highest priority in evaluating and maintaining fetal life. (C) These nursing actions are necessary prior to the cesarean section, but not immediately necessary to maintain physiological equilibrium. (D) These nursing actions are necessary prior to the cesarean section, but not immediately necessary to maintain physiological equilibrium.
NEW QUESTION 53
A male client has burns over 90% of his body after an automobile accident resulting in a fire. He was trapped inside the auto and pulled out by a bystander. After several months in the hospital and over 20 surgeries, discharge planning has begun. Throughout his hospitalization the nursing staff has been aware of psychological changes the client faces after burns over a large portion of his body resulting in disfigurement.
The nursing staff can best foster the client's self-esteem by:
- A. Allowing him to plan, assist in, and perform his own care whenever possible
- B. Allowing him to go to physical therapy for whirlpool treatment when other clients were not in physical therapy
- C. Adhering to a strict schedule of diet, exercise, and wound care
- D. Following a standardized plan of care for burn clients formulated by a world-renowned burn center
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A regimented schedule, allowing no flexibility, will not foster the client's self-esteem. (B) Isolating the client may only enhance his feelings of social isolation due to his disfigurement. (C) Standardized care plans must be personalized and adapted to each client's situation. (D) Allowing the client control over his care will foster his self-esteem and prepare him for life outside of the hospital.
NEW QUESTION 54
A client is medically cleared for ECT and is tentatively scheduled for six treatments over a 2-week period. Her husband asks, "Isn't that a lot?" The nurse's best response is:
- A. "Six to 10 treatments are common. Are you concerned about permanent effects?"
- B. "Don't worry. Some clients have lots more than that."
- C. "Yes, that does seem like a lot."
- D. "You'll have to talk to the doctor about that. The physician knows what's best for the client."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This response indicates that the nurse is unsure of herself and not knowledgeable about ECT. It also reinforces the husband's fears. (B) This response is "passing the buck" unnecessarily. The information needed to appropriately answer the husband's question is well within the nurse's knowledge base. (C) The most common range for affective disorders is 6-10 treatments. This response confirms and reinforces the physician's plan for treatment. It also opens communicationwith the husband to identify underlying fears and knowledge deficits. (D) This response offers false reassurance and dismisses the husband's underlying concerns about his wife.
NEW QUESTION 55
A 56-year-old psychiatric inpatient has had recurring episodes of depression and chronic low self-esteem. She feels that her family does not want her around, experiences a sense of helplessness, and has a negative view of herself. To assist the client in focusing on her strengths and positive traits, a strategy used by the nurse would be to:
- A. Increase the client's self-esteem by asking that she make all decisions regarding attendance in group activities
- B. Not allow any dependent behaviors by the client because she must learn independence and will have to ask for any assistance from staff
- C. Encourage or direct client to attend activities that offer simple methods to attain success
- D. Tell the client to attend all structured activities on the unit
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) The nurse should encourage activities gradually, as client's energy level and tolerance for shared activities improve. (B) Activities that focus on strengths and accomplishments, with uncomplicated tasks, minimize failure and increase self-worth. (C) Asking a client to set a goal to make all decisions about attending group activities is unrealistic, and such decisions are not always under the client's control; this sets up the client for further failure and possibly decreased self-worth. (D) Encouragement toward independence does promote increased feelings of selfworth; however, clients may need assistance with decision making and problem solving for various situations and on an individual basis.
NEW QUESTION 56
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What is the purpose of the NCLEX-RN® Exam?
Industry recognized credentials (BLS, ACLS, PALS) are also included in the exam. Ready to be a nurse, you need to pass the NCLEX-RN® exam. Demo testing is available. Fail the exam and your future career as a nurse is jeopardized. Weight gain and weight loss, pregnancy and labor, medical problems, and death all play a role in how you do on the NCLEX-RN® exam. Service staff has the ability to change the score for students who do not answer questions. Accurate answers to every question are necessary for passing the NCLEX-RN® exam. Sufficient to pass (50 percent or more) is not sufficient. You must receive a passing score to be licensed to practice as a nurse. Passing scores are different on each test date, so make sure you study!
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